hw7_solutions
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Problem solutions for a Math 113 homework set, written by Graham White and dated May 28, 2013. Book problems cover Gram-Schmidt on polynomials, counting orthonormal lists, orthogonal projections, invariant subspaces, and adjoints. Other problems show the Fourier basis is orthonormal and prove the universal property, basis and dimension of the tensor product, with canonical isomorphisms.
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Math 113 — Homework 7
Graham White
May 28, 2013
Book problems
10. The first element of our basis is the function 1.
The second element is proportional to x hx;1i1 =x 1
2. Normalising, we getp
12(x 1
2).
The third element is proportional to
x2 hx2;1i1 hx2;p
12(x 1
2)i(x 1
2) =x2 1
3 p
12(1
4 1
6)p
12(x 1
2)
=x2 1
3 (x 1
2)
=x2 x+1
6
Normalising, we getp
5(6x2 6x+ 1) .
12. Ife1is a vector with Span(e1) = Span(v1), thene1is a scalar multiple of v1. Lete1=cv1. Thenhe1;e1i=
jcj2hv1;v1i, which is equal to 1exactly whenjcj=1p
hv1;v1i. Hence there are two choices for e1. For the
remainder of the argument, we will only be concerned with the span of e1and whether vectors are orthogonal
to it, so it doesn’t matter which choice we make.
Now, orthogonal complement to Span(e1)inside Span(v1;v2)is one dimensional. As before, there are two
choices of vector e2which are contained in this subspace with he2;e2i= 1. We now repeat this argument.
There are two choices for e3in the orthogonal complement of Span(e1;e2)inside Span(v1;v2;v3), etc.
For eachei, there were two possibilities, and these choices could be made independently. Therefore there are
2npossible listsfe1;e2;:::;engsatisfying the desired condition.
17. Any element of Vcan be written as v= (v P(v)) +P(v). We have that (v P(v))2ker(P), because
P2=P, and thatP(v)2im(P)by definition. Therefore ker(P)andim(P)spanV. Every element of ker(P)
is orthogonal to every element of im(P)and a vector is orthogonal to itself only if it is the zero vector, so
ker(P)\im(P) =f0g. ThereforeV= ker(P)im(P).
Using the above decomposition, the component of vinim(P)isP(v), soPis the orthogonal projection onto
im(P).
20. IfUandU?are both invariant under T, then letvbe an arbitrary element of V. We may write v=u+u0,
u2Uandu02U?. Then we have that
PUT(v) =PUT(u+u0)
=PU(T(u) +T(u0))
=T(u)(T(u)2U;T(u0)2U?)
=T(PU(u+u0)) = TPU(v)
ThereforePUT=TPU.
1
Now, assume that PUT=TPU. Letube any element of U. We have that PUT(u) =TPU(u), soPUT(u) =
T(u). Therefore T(u)is fixed byPU, so is an element of U. HenceUis invariant under T. We have that
IdV=PU+PU?, and IdVandPUboth commute with T, soPU?commutes with T. Therefore the same
argument shows that U?is invariant under T.
We have shown that UandU?are invariant under Tif and only if PUT=TPU.
24. The required condition is linear in p, so it suffices to give a qthat works for p= 1;p=xandp=x2. That is,
we need the following three conditions:
Z1
0q(x)dx= 1
Z1
0xq(x)dx=1
2
Z1
0x2q(x)dx=1
4
Letq(x) =ax2+bx+c. Our equations reduce to
a
3+b
2+c= 1
a
4+b
3+c
2=1
2
a
5+b
4+c
3=1
4
Solving these gives a= 15;b= 15;c= 3
2. Therefore the polynomial q(x)isq(x) = 15x2+ 15x 3
2.
25. Proceeding as in the previous part, we have the equations
Z1
0q(x)dx=Z1
0cos(x)dx
Z1
0xq(x)dx=Z1
0xcos(x)dx
Z1
0x2q(x)dx=Z1
0x2cos(x)dx
Using integration by parts, we evaluate these as
Z1
0q(x)dx= 0
Z1
0xq(x)dx= 2
2
Z1
0x2q(x)dx= 2
2
As before, let q(x) =ax2+bx+c. We get that
a
3+b
2+c= 0
a
4+b
3+c
2= 2
2
a
5+b
4+c
3= 2
2
Solving these gives a= 0;b= 24
2;c=12
2. Therefore the polynomial q(x)isq(x) = 24
2x+12
2.
2
26. Let an orthonormal basis for Vbefe1;:::;eng. We have that for each v2V,hTv;ai=hv;Tai. (Note that the
first inner product is in Vand the second is in F). Takingvto beei, we get that for each i,hTei;ai=hei;Tai.
But now we have an expression for hei;Taifor eachei, which we can use to reconstitute Ta. We get that
Ta=ha;Te 1ie1+:::+ha;Tenien:
(The order of the elements ha;bivshb;aiis important, but reversing it just results in complex conjugation).
Other problems:
1. (a) Assume that some linear combination a1g1+:::+angn= 0. Then for any v2V, we have that
a1hv;v1i+:::+anhv;vni= 0
Therefore
hv;a1v1+:::+anvni= 0:
This equation is true for all v2V, includingv=a1v1+:::+anvn. But the dot product of a vector
with itself is zero only if that vector is zero. Therefore a1v1+:::+anvn= 0. Butv1;:::;vnis linearly
independent, so each aiis zero. Therefore each aiis zero, and we have shown that g1;:::;gnare linearly
independent.
We know that the dimension of Visn, so any set of nlinearly independent vectors is a basis. Therefore
g1;:::;gnis a basis of V.
(b) The basis (v
1;:::;v
n)being equal to the basis (g1;:::;gn)is equivalent to the statement that hvi;vji=
ijfor eachiandj, by the definition of v
i. But this is the definition of orthonormality of a basis.
2. In order to show that this list is orthonormal, we need to show that the inner product of any element with itself
is one and that any two elements are orthogonal. We check these as follows, where kandlare any positive
integers,k6=l.
3
h1p
(2);1p
(2)i=1
Z
1
2dx
=1
(
2
2)
= 1
hcos(kx);cos(kx)i=1
Z
cos2(kx)dx
=1
Z
cos(2kx) + 1
2dx
=1
sin(2kx)
2k+x
2
=1
(
2
2)
= 1
hsin(kx);sin(kx)i=1
Z
sin2(kx)dx
=1
Z
1 cos(2kx)
2dx
=1
x
2 sin(2kx)
2k
=1
(
2
2)
= 1
4
h1p
2;cos(kx)i=1p
21
Z
cos(kx)dx
=1
2sin(kx)
k
= 0
h1p
2;sin(kx)i=1p
21
Z
sin(kx)dx
= 1
2cos(kx)
k
= 0
hcos(kx);cos(lx)i=1
Z
cos(kx) cos(lx)dx
=1
Z
cos(kx+lx) + cos(kx lx)
2dx
= 0 (as calculated above, as k+landk lare nonzero)
hsin(kx);sin(lx)i=1
Z
sin(kx) sin(lx)dx
=1
Z
cos(kx+lx) cos(kx lx)
2dx
= 0 (as calculated above, as k+landk lare nonzero)
hcos(kx);sin(lx)i=1
Z
cos(kx) sin(lx)dx
=1
Z
sin(kx+lx) sin(kx lx)
2dx
= 0 (as calculated above, as k+landk lare nonzero)
Therefore the given set of functions is orthonormal.
3. (a) We check that is bilinear by using the relations used in the definition of the tensor product, as follows
(av+bv0;w) = (av+bv0)
w
=av
w+bv0
w
=a(v
w) +b(v0
w)
=a(v;w) +b(v0;w)
Linearity in the second variable is checked via a similar calculation.
(b) We define T(v
w) =T(v;w)for eachv2Vand eachw2W, and extend this definition to all of V
W
linearly. The function Tis well-defined because Tis bilinear. (Could you write down the calculations that
would verify this?). By construction, we have that T=T. Therefore there exists at least one map T
with the required properties.
Assume there were two linear maps T;T0withT=TandT=T0. ThenTandT0would be
equal on the image of . But this means that TandT0are equal on any pure tensor, and any element of
V
Wis a linear combination of pure tensors. Therefore T=T0, so there is a unique linear map with
this property.
(c) Any element of V
Wis a linear combination of pure tensors. Using the bilinearity of the tensor product,
we may write any pure tensor v
was a linear combination of putative basis elements vi
wjby expanding
vandwin terms of the bases of VandW. Therefore the elements vi
wjspanV
W.
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As in the hint, assume that there is some linear dependence relation between the vi
wj, with coefficients
aij. The function fijis equal to 1onvi
wjand is zero on all other elements of our supposed basis
(Why? Check this using part b) ). Applying fijto our linear dependence relation gives that aij= 0. We
repeat this for each pair (i;j), showing that each aij= 0. Therefore the vi
wjare linearly independent.
We have shown that the set of vi
wjspansV
Wand is linearly independent, so it is a basis. Therefore
the dimension of the V
Wis the product of the dimensions of Vand ofW, by counting the elements of
this basis.
(d) Consider the map defined by(p(x);q(y)) =p(x)q(y)and extended linearly to all of F[x]
F[y].
The function is linear because polynomial multiplication is bilinear. Define another map 1by
1(xayb) =xa
yb, extended linearly to F[x;y]. These maps are inverses of one another, which is
easily verified on monomials. (Why is it enough to check this on monomials?). Therefore is an isomor-
phism from F[x]
F[y]toF[x;y], as required.
(e) For (3), the canonical isomorphism is the linear map which takes v
(w;x)to(v
w;v
x).
For(4), note that for any v2Vanda2F, we have that v
a=a(v
1). Therefore, let be the
linear map defined by (v
a) =avand its inverse be 1(v) =v
1. It is easily checked that these
maps linear and are inverses of one another (on pure tensors in V
Fand on any element of V). A similar
argument works for F
V.
For(5), note that for any v2V, we have that v
0 = 0 . Therefore, the vector space V
f0gis the unique
vector space with only one element. There is only one map between vector spaces which each have one
element. This map is trivially linear and bijective, thus is an isomorphism. Likewise for 0
V.
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